Find a positive inverse for 3 modulo 40. That is find a positive integer s such that 3s=1(mod 40)
27 works, I guess
haha that is teh right answer but how did u get that?
I don't know, guesswork, which I guess, is not the right way to go about it. Perhaps you would enlighten me?
u need to use linear combination. but can u explain me ur logic?
yeah, I just used trial and error... 40.... 40+1 divisible by 3? no 80.....80+1 divisible by 3? yes, it must be 81/3 then :)
And I don't know what linear combination is :P
hahah ok thanks :)
programmatically i found 27 too
ya its the answer but like i dont know how to solve ut. like they have this weird method
3*s - 1 must be greater than 40 which means s>14
3s-1 must have zero at end therefore s must be 17, 27, 37, 47, ..
okkkk i see u just use logic
i used computer to find it first ..
on the other hand, we have 3s - 1 should be divisible by 4 too
or, 3s = 1mod(4) 3s = 1mod(10)
from, 3s = 1mod(4) we have s = 3,7,11,15,19,23,27,31, ... hence, the first intersection occurs at s = 27 so this is the answer
ohhh i seee i like this method
well, i'm still not pretty much convinced if you can use this method ... algebra should be more fundamental than this ... i guess
THANKS :DDDDDDDDD
yw .. if i find any better, i'll update
i got this http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/67969/solve-100x-23y-19/68021#68021
you want to solve \(3x\equiv 1( \text{mod }40)\) one way to do this is use the euclidean algorithm
i'm interested .. please go on
ya that is method i need to use
in this case you are lucky, because it only takes one step
you get \(40=13\times 3+1\)
right
this tell you \(1=1\times 40-13\times 3\) and so the inverse of 3 is -13
which of course is the same mod 40 as 27
didnt follow the last step
you are lucky in this case that you get it right away. if you wanted compute the inverse of 7 mod 40 it might take more steps was the answer clear?
ok i thought maybe not
liek abt the inverse
you want \(3\times x\equiv 1(40)\) which by definition means 40 divides \(3x-1\)
which in turn means \(3x-1=40k\) for some \(k\) or \(1=40j+3x\)
ok got that part
\(j\) and \(x\) are called the "bezout coeffients" so that is what you are looking for
by the euclidean algorithm, divide 40 by 3 as needed until you get a remainder of 1. in this case it only takes one step, so this one is very easy. so we have \[40=13\times 3+1\] solving for 1 gives \[1=40-13\times 3\] so the coefficient for 3 is -13
that means the inverse of 3 is -13 but generally since you are working mod 40 your universe is positive integers between 0 and 39, so you would say -13 = 40-13 = 27 and that is your inverse
ohhhhh i get it. Like my book never explained what inverse was
lol what book?
text book
YAY that was awesome SAT :D
well ... thanks for new method ...
we can also do this the donkey way, which might be easier and make more sense
start with \(3x\equiv 1(40)\) and you want to divide by 3, but you cannot so keep adding 40 until you can
hahah i never heard of teh donkey way lol
\(3x\equiv 1(40)\) \[3x\equiv 41(40)\] still can't divide by 3 \[3x\equiv 81(40)\] ahh now we can divide! \[3x\equiv 81(40)\] \[x\equiv 27(40)\]
this way is in fact rather easy, especially if you have small numbers and can get it right away
in fact if i was going to do this on an exam, this is probably the method i would use
OK thanks sattelite. Sorry os is freezing my comp
yw, hope it is clear
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