\texbf{Exercise 10.1} Let $f$ and $g$ be continous functions on $[a, b]$ and differentiable on $(a, b)$. Assume $g(a)\neq g(b)$. The \texbf{Second Mean Value Theorem} states: There exists /(o /in (a,b)/) with

$\frac{f(a)-f(b)}{g(a)-g(b)} = \frac{f^{'}(0)}{g^{'}(0)}$

Prove this by using Rolle's Theorem; for this, consider a suitable function $h(x)$ similar to the proof in the lecture.

Question

\texbf{Exercise 10.1} Let $f$ and $g$  be continous functions on $[a, b]$ and differentiable on $(a, b)$. Assume $g(a)\neq g(b)$. The \texbf{Second Mean Value Theorem} states: There exists /(o /in (a,b)/) with

$\frac{f(a)-f(b)}{g(a)-g(b)} = \frac{f^{'}(0)}{g^{'}(0)}$
                            
                            Prove this by using Rolle's Theorem; for this, consider a suitable function $h(x)$ similar to the proof in the lecture.

anonymous · Answer

sorry i made some mistake by latex, i try to get it away..