show the n^5 - n is divisible by 3 for all integers n
please help! :)
Let's try to factor n^5 - n. I get (n - 1)n(n + 1)(n^2 + 1)
One in three consecutive integers MUST be divisible by 3.
im sorry i dont get the first equation but i get ur 2nd comment
Do you know factoring? Just try a calculator or something
so basically you've factorised it again and again?
so the first factorisation is n(n^4 - 1)?
\(\Rightarrow n(n^4 - 1) \) \(\Rightarrow n( (n - 1) (n^3 + 3n^2 + 3^2n + 1)) \)
yep :) i got that
But I want to cut down what I am explaining you. Leave the factorization for a while.
ok
Yay! Now, if you notice, one in three consecutive integers can be divided by 3.
yep
See how there's this thing (n - 1)n(n + 1)?? So that means we are multiplying three consecutive integers.
That means that it is divisible by 3, as we can divide one of them and we get a proper quotient :)
wait sorry just a minute :)
where did u get (n - 1)n(n + 1) from again? it is factorisation?
Yeah ^^^ see there... the factorization
The factored form is (n - 1)n(n + 1)(n^2 + 1), but if we focus on (n - 1)n(n + 1) we see three consecutive integers.. and see the rest that I explained.
ohh i get it so if say n is 3 than its 2, 3, and 4?
thanks :) i get it now..but what do i do now that i have that?
Yeah, so 3 is divisible by 3 right? :)
in the answer i just say the because of this factorisation it is divisible by 3
(2)(3)(4)(10) = 240 a proof.
yep i get that 3 is divisible by 3
No.. it is because (n - 1)(n)(n + 1) signifies the multiplication of 3 consecutive integers, and one in three consecutive integers is divisible by 3 =)
ahhhh so the actually factorisation is ^^^ and when u substitute n with a number say 3 then u get a number that is divisible by 3 right?
actual*
No, proofs don't involve trying it with numbers, as proofs may have exceptions.
ohh okay
so for the answer i can put the equation n^5 - n then i put the factorised bits (n - 1)n(n + 1)(n^2 + 1) and then i say that because they are consecutive they are divisible by 3?
but just one thing..if there are 3 consecutive integers (n - 1)(n)(n + 1) how is it one in three consecutive integers is divisible by 3?
would this deal with .... forgot the name of it ...
if its true for k, then its assume its true for k+1 etc
induction right? yea i dont get that... lol :)
induction :) thats what i was thinking
can u explain induction to me?
or is what i was doing before right>
n^5 - n there is nothing obvious that would make this go bad for integers; so lets set up a few basis cases dunno if the prior method was viable or not
ok..so what do i do? im sorry im soo stuck... :P
0^5 - 0 = 0 ; 0/3 is good 1^5 - 1 = 0 ; 0/3 is good 2^5 - 2 = 30; 30/3 is good assume its good for k k^5 - k is divisible by 3 is the assumption from the basis
hmm, what to do next
oh ok i get that..k is just a random letter replacing n
correct
next we would change k to k+1 and work it out
okay so it wud be (k + 1)^5 - (k+1)?
yes
now to deduce of thats divisible by 3 :)
ok so how do i do that :P
cant recall excatly, but id prolly start by expanding the whole thing
Woah woah.. we have already proved the existence of the formula in n ;)
1^5 - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0 that is divisible by 3.
And then we just deduced it for n.. and we can just in the same way deduce for n + 1
:P yea u have lol but i dont get how its to do with one in three consecutive integers is divisible by 3
Where don't you understand?
k^5 + 5k^4 + 10k^3 + 10k^2 +5k + 1 - k - 1 k^5 + 5k^4 + 10k^3 + 10k^2 +5k - k k^5 + 5k^4 + 10k^3 + 10k^2 + 4k hmmm
If n is divisible by 3, then the quotient is (n + 1)(n - 1)(n^2 + 1) If n + 1 is divisible by 3, then the quotient is n(n - 1)(n^2 + 1).. If n - 1 is divisible by 3, then the quotient is n(n + 1)(n^2 + 1) You can even try out the Polynomial Remainder theorem, and you'd see that it has no remainder in all three cases.
ohh okay thanks :)
i believe parth has it, but i cant recall too well if thats adequate for the induction or not :/
Both work
I GOT IT NOW!! u guys are awesome! :D
im kinda slow :P
:) good luck
lol
i got it by substituting the n in n(n - 1)(n + 1)(n^2 + 1) by 2 and then getting 30 which id divisible by 3
if 2 numbers are divisible by 3; then the sum is also divisible by 3 ....
that is what i was thinking :)
so i prove it with 2 numbers than it works with all numbers yay!
iv been stuck on that question for 3 hours :P
prove it with a basis case; then assume it works for all cases of "k"; then add (k+1) to both sides and algebra it into submission is the usual induction steps that I recall
i was stuck changing a flat tire for like 3 hours :)
hahah welll its 11:30 and i have school tomorrow so i better go to sleep :) thanks for ur help!
yw, and again ... good luck
thanks :)
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