evaluate the definite integral
\[\int\limits_{0}^{\pi/16} x(\sec(4x))^2dx\]
u = x du = dx dv = sec(4x)^2 1/4v = tan(4x)?? chain rule?
\[\frac{xtan(4x)}{4} - \int\limits \tan(4x) dx\]
\[\frac{xtan(4x)}{4} - -\frac{1}{4}\ln|\cos4x| + c ???????????\]
\[\frac{xtan(4x)}{4} +\frac{1}{4}\ln|\cos4x| + c ???????????\]
\[\frac{xtan(4x)}{4}\ln|\cos4x| + c ???????????\]
since \(\large dv=sec^2(4x)dx \), then \(\large v=\int sec^2(4x)dx=\frac{1}{4}tan(4x) \)
it's not 4tan(4x)? I thought it's the chainr ule...
\[\large [\frac{1}{4}tan(4x)]'=\frac{1}{4}[tan(4x)]'=\frac{1}{4}\cdot sec^2(4x)\cdot [4x]'=sec^2(4x) \]
chain rule for derivatives... i've never heard of the chain rule for integrals...
Me either.... I was just basing it off of what Turing and I did in my last problem....
um... :'(
your IBP procedure looks ok... it's just the part where you calculated v is incorrect...
I was just saying that a u-sub is like the opposite of the chain rule there is no chain rule for integrals, you said that
@KonradZuse
oh okay so we didn't do a chain rule last time then huh... We just did u-sub..?
oic now.... !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Getting all my shizz mixed up :)
actually even the way I did it shouldn't it still be correct haha?
you dropped a factor of 1/4 from the second integral
besides that it's fine
oh wasn't looking at that haha :P.
\[\frac{xtan(x)}{4} + \frac{1}{8}\ln|\cos(4x)| + c\]
I mean nope
you're a trickster....
I obviously had to look twice, so you should catch your mistake as I did you are so close
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
I'm gonna say that's totally your job to find your very silly algebra error. Good luck!
I hope it's not that + 1/8...?
that is where the problem is
well it's normally - int and when you convert tan it's -ln|cos(u)| +c
all that part is fine
unless your'e talking about the 1/8.. Which I thought with u sub it was 1/4 and the other 1/4 wouldbe 1/8.
oh really?
oh wait 1/16
:P
:P
I always do the dumbest algebra mistakes LOL!
now the fun part....
we all do
\[[\frac{\frac{\pi}{16}\tan(\frac{\pi}{16})}{4} + \frac{1}{16}\ln|\cos(4\frac{\pi}{16})|] - [\frac{0\tan(0)}{4} + \frac{1}{16}\ln|\cos(0)|]\]
*yawn...
Ok I'm done here LOL!
wanna go simplify your other question to prove that it gives the same answer?
or are you done there too?
I feel like that one is basically done, just have to substitute and shizz... For this one I'm going to finish it up..
0tan(0)/4 should be 0?
yeah
2nd part is laso 0
cos0=1 and ln1=0 so all that on the right is 0
ugleh.
should I leave the first part like we did last night?
cos(pi/4)=sqrt(2)/2
ln|sqrt(2)/2|=who gives a crap?
;)
so yeah, I would leave that for my calculator lol
I should simpify to sqrt(2)/2 right?
\[[\frac{\frac{\pi}{16}\tan(\frac{\pi}{16})}{4} + \frac{1}{16}\ln|\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}|] - 0\]
I dunno, I mean... who cares? do you want to use double-angle formulas to simplify tan(pi/16) too? that seeems crazy
hahaha nty....
you could do some clever things with it, but which is the "simplest" is subjective
\[\frac{\frac{\pi}{16}\tan(\frac{\pi}{16})}{4} + \frac{1}{16}\ln|\cos(\frac{\pi}{4})| - 0\]
haha that didn't work BOO!
ok so the practice version wants a decimal... REAQLLY! WTF ASK FOR IT...
\[\frac{\frac{\pi}{16}\tan(\frac{\pi}{16})}{4} + \frac{1}{16}\ln|\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}|=\frac\pi{16}\left(\frac14\tan(\frac\pi{16})-\frac12\ln2\right)\]\[=\frac\pi{64}\left(\tan(\frac\pi{16})-2\ln2\right)\]a little nicer
oh that pi is in the wrong place though
\[\frac{\frac{\pi}{16}\tan(\frac{\pi}{16})}{4} + \frac{1}{16}\ln|\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}|=\frac1{16}\left(\frac\pi4\tan(\frac\pi{16})-\frac12\ln2\right)\]\[=\frac1{64}\left(\pi\tan(\frac\pi{16})-2\ln2\right)\]
wolfram doesn't even like it... LOL
writing theanswer in the prettiest possible way is not wolfram's specialty
it just chugs out a number, or some systematic method of simplification
Maybe I'll enter your simpificatin and see if it likes it :P
omfg same answer.... http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=1%2F64+%28pi+*+tan%28pi%2F16%29+-+2ln%7C2%7C%29 http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=1%2F64+%28pi+*+tan%28pi%2F16%29+-+2ln%7C2%7C%29
yay
I'm scared to enter that lOL. Idk how many digits like 4...?
ok so -0.0119 didn't work...
=π/16(1) + 1/4ln sqrt{2}/2 = π/16 − 1/8 ln(2) ≈ 0.1097 From the practice version...
why is theirs positive.....
should it be 0.0119?
ok it whould be tan 4x, right, so you should have tan(pi/4)=1
so there's one mistake
question was \[\int\limits_{0}^{\pi/8} x(\sec(2x))^2dx\]
but you should still then have tan(2x) which is still tan(pi/4)
oh creap I messed that up :P
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=1%2F64+%28pi+*+tan%28pi%2F16%29+-+2ln%7C2%7C%29
\[\frac{\frac{\pi}4\tan(\frac{\pi}{16})}{4} + \frac{1}{16}\ln|\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}|=\frac1{16}\left(\frac\pi4\tan(\frac\pi4)-\frac12\ln2\right)\]\[={\left(\pi-2\ln2\right)\over64}\]now it looks okay
WOOOOOOOOOOOOT! and we are done with that FOREVER.....
but you must walk away with a deeper knowledge... which I'm sure happened :)
Yeah I've learned a lot today :D.
ON TO THE NEXT QUESTION!
To learn more of course :P
oh joy :P
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