"If \(\omega\) is a 1-form on \(\mathbb R^2-0\) such that \(d\omega=0\), prove that:\[\omega=\lambda\,d\theta+dg\]for some \(\lambda\in\mathbb R\) and \(g:\mathbb R^2-0\to\mathbb R\)." Dear oh dear, my math review is getting harder.
this is blasphemy
this is madness
Don't you dare finish the quote.
THIS IS SPARTAAA
THIS IS SPARTAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
:< Now why would you just go and do that?
While we're at it, can you prove for me that if A is a noetherian ring, and f in A is an element which is neither a zero divisor nor a unit, then every minimal prime ideal containing f has height 1? Just kidding. That's my sarcastic way of saying "I have no idea wtf this question is about."
Man you and I have gone in two very separate branches of math. I guess you went the path of abstract algebra, topology, Fourier's, etc.? I went analysis, stochastics, statistics, and physics.
Haha nah, I just pulled a random theorem out of chapter one of Hartshorne. Do not ask me why I own a copy of Hartshorne. There is no good reason.
Just typing down random thoughts. A previous problem motivates the definition:\[c^{*}_{R,1}\omega=\lambda_R(c^{*}_{R,1}\,d\theta)+dg_R\]And then we'll have to define something for positive \(R_1,R_2\), so that we can apply Stoke's theorem.
In other words, I have no idea what's going on. I hope this won't be on the GRE.
Man, the notes I took are so weird, I can't understand myself.
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