here is another question that is bugging me deifinite integral using definite integral
\[\int\limits_{o}^{\pi}x \log(\sin x)= (-\pi^2\div 2)(\log 2)\]
you have to proof that integral is equal to ((-pi^2)/2))*log 2
ew
have you tried using integration by parts?
yeah integration by parts looks like the way to start with my guess is log(sinx) being u
tried but not working using the properties I was able to reduce it to \[\int\limits_{0}^{\pi}\log \sin x\] I tried to solve this parts but i am stuck
but is there anyway to make that prettier..it doesnt look so.
@Davidjohn tell me this question has been kicking my butt only one i am not able to :(
let u = log(sin x) and dv = xdx is this what you did?
your substitution is wrong it would be du=cotxdx
right
it would be cot x...what's the problem with that hehe
ah okay. it just takes a lot of integration by parts but things cancel out nicely. you change halfway through to the u being the x's so they eventually cancel completely
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