Question

are (fog)(x) and (f(g(x)) the same statement?

Answer 1

Yes, they are. They are different mathematical notation for the same thing.

Answer 2

what he said ^ ^.^

Answer 3

o represents of..

So,
fog(x) represents f of (g of x)

f(g(x)) here also it is read as : f of (g of x)...

Both are the same statements..

Answer 4

okay, these books try really hard to confuse us. so stupid that they use different terminology interchangeably

Answer 5

There are uses for both notations, just like there are subtle tricks to add numbers and multiply them, such as factoring and splitting numbers in different pieces to multiply them, there are conceptual advantages to both of these later on in math and directly even in Computer Science.

Answer 6

it depends on the range and domain of \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\)

Answer 7

\[(f\circ g)(x)\cancel\equiv(g\circ f)(x)\]

Answer 8

@UnkleRhaukus. it appears you misread the question. Though your statement is correct.

Answer 9

ah yes i mis read the question

i though you were comparing \((f\circ g)(x)\) and \((g\circ f)(x)\)
which are not necessarily equal

but you were comparing \((f\circ g)(x)\) with \(f(g(x))\)
which are equivalent