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Prove: For every positive real number x, there is a positive real number y less than x, with the property that for all positive real numbers z, yz is greater or equal to z
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there is no \(x\) in your conclusion
There doesnt have to be
ooh i see
It doesnt have to be true. you can provide a counterexample
it looks false to me
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take the case of x=1
then y<1
and yz < z
ok i see
i think this is not correct
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\[yz\geq z\] and \(y, z>0\implies y\geq 1\)
and it is certainly not the case that given ANY \(x\) there is a \(y<x\) where \(y\geq 1\)
for example \(x=\frac{1}{2}\)
ok if i was paying attention i would have seen @asnaseer wrote this already
:) thats alright @satellite73 - your proof is much neater! :)
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must be miller time
hahahah THANKS GUYS :))))))
yw :)
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