question
yeah thats what B is
you know for the other question where you said add those 2 cases together
we look at S5 that has order 3 only right ?
Which problem do you want to start with?
lets clarify the one in the messages first ?
Sounds good. We want to find the number of homomorphisms \(\varphi\) from \(\mathbb{Z}_3=\{0,1,2\}\) to \(S_5\). Case 1: It's the identity homomorphism where everything gets sent to the identity in \(S_5\). Let's call that \(e\). There is only one of these. Case 2: It's not the identity homomorphism. In that case, we know that \(|\varphi(1)|=|\varphi(2)|=3\) since \[\varphi(1+1+1)=\varphi(1)\varphi(1)\varphi(1)\]\[\varphi(1+1+1)=\varphi(0)=e\]So by substitution, \[\varphi(1)^3=e\]The same argument follows for \(|\varphi(2)|\).
Since \(\varphi\) is determined entirely by \(\varphi(0)\), we can choose an element in \(S_5\) to send \(\varphi(0)\). However, since \(|<\varphi(1)>|=3\), we must choose a 3-cycle. How many 3-cycles are there in \(S_5\)?
(123) (321) (213) so only 3?
i mean no wth there is 5 * 2! so wouldnt there be 10 choices?
Those are the 3-cycles in \(S_3\). (also, (321)=(213)). We want to find the 3-cycles in \(S_5\). As it turns out, there are exactly 20 elements in \(S_5\) that are 3-cycles such as (123)(4)(5).
Since we already listed the identity homomorphism, and there are 20 3-cycle elements, there should be 21 homomorphisms total.
but do we have to list all 20 3 cycles?
You don't have to list all of them. You just have to know that there are 20.
or could we just state it has 20 and is there any mathematical way to find out how much there are because how i got 5*2! i said to my self there are 5 choices and we can rearrange it 2! ways or whatt
The formula is \[\frac{5!}{[3^1(1!)][1^2(2!)]}=\frac{120}{6}=20\]See this for where I got the formula http://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Conjugacy_class_size_formula_in_symmetric_group
OOO okayy sick makes sense
alright this question is done now just minor questions
for it to be a homomorphism that is basically saying if it is onto right like being surjective?
and if we show its surjective somehow we basically showed its a homomorphism right?
To be a homomorphism, it doesn't have to be surjective. It just has to have the property that \[\varphi(gh)=\varphi(g)*\varphi(h)\]I don't believe that showing it's surjective shows anything definitively (unless you know other things as well).
hmm alright makes sense
so i shouldnt really think of it that way then rather than try to get phi(gh) = phi(g)*phi(h)
Right. If you can prove \(\varphi(gh)=\varphi(g)*\varphi(h)\) it's a homomorphism.
alright awesome thanks a lot :):)
You're welcome. Let me know if this gives you any trouble.
yeah for sure honestly man i dont know if i wouldve been able to pass this course if it wasnt for you like its getting fun now lol
but right now the only question I have left is that matrix question I posted the picture I sent
Do you know where to start on that?
no these 2 questions i was completely lost like i didnt know how to approach the question im pretty sure i can tryy let me tryy
ok see here is what i get confused like the definition you provided and what the book have abnout homomorphism is phi(gh) = phi(g) *phi(h) you know what i am trying to get at how do i even start like phi of the matrix
Alright. The way \(\varphi\) is defined, it works like this. \[\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix} a&b\\0&d\end{bmatrix}\right)=d^2\]So you need to take \[\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix} a&b\\0&d\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix} e&f\\0&h\end{bmatrix}\right)\]and show that this is equal to \(d^2\cdot h^2\)
uhh okayy
where phi[ (e f; 0 h) ] = h^2?
That's precisely it. First, do the matrix multiplication \[\begin{bmatrix} a&b\\0&d\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix} e&f\\0&h\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}ae&af+bh\\0&dh\end{bmatrix}\]Can you tell me what \[\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix}ae&af+bh\\0&dh\end{bmatrix}\right)\] is equal to?
thats what i dont get how on earth are you suppose to take the phi of that matrix are we just suppose to assume it has to be d^2*h^2
That almost it. From the definition of \(\varphi\), you get that \[\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix}ae&af+bh\\0&dh\end{bmatrix}\right)=(dh)^2=d^2h^2\]
Since \[\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix} a&b\\0&d\end{bmatrix}\right)\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix} e&f\\0&h\end{bmatrix}\right)=d^2h^2\]as well, we know that \[\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix} a&b\\0&d\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix} e&f\\0&h\end{bmatrix}\right)=\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix} a&b\\0&d\end{bmatrix}\right)\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix} e&f\\0&h\end{bmatrix}\right)\]So it must be a homomorphism.
ooo that is clearly phi(d^2 * h^2) = d^2 * h^2
o wow thats all ? :\
yup. That's all to show that it's a homomorphism.
not bad just have to keep practicing then hard at it and for part B to that question i think the teacher was up to something and it may show up on our test
he didnt explain how to find the kernel he was just saying so by the definition blah blah
like all he did was state the definition but he said you would need to know how to find the kernel and what not
To find the kernel, you need to find all matrices such that \[\varphi\left(\begin{bmatrix} a&b\\0&d\end{bmatrix}\right)=1\]From this relation, and the definition of \(\varphi\) you know that \(d^2=1\implies d=\pm1\)
Thus, the kernel is merely \[\begin{bmatrix} a&b\\0&\pm1\end{bmatrix}\]
yeahh
seriously thats all we dont need to do more? :\
That's all I would show on one of my homework assignments. You might want to put a few more words in there to make sure it's clear, but that's all you need.
ooo okay so basicallly how do you fiind the kernel just make our phi =1 ?
To find the kernel of \(\varphi\), set \(\varphi(g)=e\) where \(e\) is the identity in group that is mapped to. Once you've don'e that, solve for \(g\).
alright perfect it makes sense now thanks a lot really appreciate it thank youu
You're welcome.
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!