How would you find this infinite series-like thing?
\[y=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{4}{n^2}cosnx\]
This is part of the confusion that came out when I (naively maybe) tried to Fourier transform x^2.
hmm...fourier series
More completely, I got: \[x^2=\frac{4 \pi^2}{3}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{4}{n^2}cosnx+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{-4 \pi}{n}sinnx\]
So if you just saw one of those series, you could only use the Fourier series to ascertain its value? Also, is there any meaning of divergence or convergence in this scenario?
yes i think just fourier series
but x^2 is an even function how u get sin terms in its fourier series
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/math/f/5/3/f53a89111da355fff38eb41c1f41fb6d.png
oh i think u change period from \( -\pi \le x \le \pi \) to \( 0 \le x \le 2\pi \) ha?
That's what I did
so thats ok :)
What would it mean if this series were to diverge?
these series converge quite quickly
I realise that, but my question was concerning these types of infinite series (which I haven't encountered before). What I meant was what does it mean that\[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}n^2cosx\] diverges (if it does- if it doesn't assume that I inserted one which actually diverged)
use squeeze theorem for series to show it's bounded.
\[\sum_1^\infty {-4 \over n^2 } \leq \sum_{1}^\infty {4 \cos nx \over n^2} \leq \sum_1^\infty {4 \over n^2 } \\ \sum_1^\infty{1 \over n^2} = {\pi^2 \over 6}\]
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