taylor series f(x) = ln(x) c = 1
Yeah, that's what I got too... But apparently not correct.....
let x = u + 1, expand it at u=0
well actually the sumation starts at 0.
SO maybe ^n-1?
f(x) = ln (x), x=1 => f(x) = 0 f'(x) = 1/x, x=1 => f(x) = 1 f''(x) = -1/x^2 => f(x) = -1 .. so on and on
hmm...
use the regular formula .. f^n(1)(x-1)^n/n!
f^n(1)?
that's nth derivative of log(x) at x=1
Ok, so the same as what wolfram said, except n! instead of n?
well, you will get some numbers from the derivative that would help cancelling some parts of n!
it is essentially same as expansion of ln(1+u) at u=0 http://home.scarlet.be/math/taylor.htm#ln(1+x)-and-its-Macl then put back u = x-1
where are you stuck?
the Taylor expansion for a function around x=a is\[f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)\]
in this case a=1 so we have\[\ln x=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{f^{(n)}(1)}{n!}(x-1)\]so for the first term, what is f(1) (that is when n=0) ??
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