If \(f(x) \le g(x)\) for all \(x\) on \([a,b]\) (except possibly at \(x = c\)) and \(a \le c \le b\) then \[ \lim_{x \to c} f(x) \le \lim_{x \to c} g(x)\] May I know what this means?
Is this as simple as something like 'if \(f(x)\) is less than or equal to \(g(x)\), then we have \(\lim \limits_{x \to c} f(x) \le \lim \limits_{x \to c} g(x)\)'?
yes
you want a proof for this or what ?!
No, I don't. I just saw this on Paul's Notes and I got a little confused as to what it actually was supposed to mean.
not much to this, don't think too hard about it
What's that \([a,b]\) and \(c\) thing? Are [a,b] the coordinates?
[a,b] is the set of the real numbers between a and b including a and b !
Oh! That's the interval notation!
Wait. How can we have \(x \in [a,b], \quad x \ne c, \quad a \le b \le c\) at the same time?
Since \(x\) fulfils the value of numbers between \(a\) and \(b\); and \(c\) is between a and b, then \(c\) also is a solution!
Oh. I get it now :)
\(x \in [a, c) \cup (c,b]\).
yeaah !
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