Topic: \(\textbf{Calculus 2}\) Evaluate the indefinite integral as an infinite series. \[\int \frac{\cos x − 1}{x} \ \ \ dx \] What the heck? I mean putting these in Taylor series forms are hard enough, but this? Not even sure where to start here >_< It worries me because the final is coming up and this is a hole in my knowledge... So, um, help?
Well, could you start with the infinite series for cosine x?
You'd have (1/x) (-x^2/2! + x^4/4! .....)
\[ \int \frac{\cos x}{x}dx - \int \frac{1}{x}dx \]
Let's see... \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}, \text{for all x = } \mathbb{R}\]
That's the MacLaurin equivalent for cosine
\[ \frac{ \cos x}{x} = \frac{1}{x} \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n \frac{x^{2n}}{(2n)!} \]
Is it? Did I look at the wrong one? (-:
oh yes that's the hyperbolic one! SOrry!
Oh no wait I have the wrong one, I wrote sine by mistake
Arg soo confusing lol
lets both check again then hehe.
yes I believe I have the right one
I thought you couldn't just do 1/x , you'd have to convert that to a series as well, yes?
\[ \cos x = \sum_{n = 0}^\infty {(-1)^nx^{2n}\over (2n)!}\] which makes \[ \int \sum_{n = 1}^\infty {(-1)^nx^{2n-1}\over (2n)!} dx = {(-1)^nx^{2n}\over 2n(2n)!}\]
+c
Anti-derivative power rule?
\[ \frac{ \cos x}{x} = \frac{1}{x} \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n \frac{x^{2n}}{(2n)!} \] Distribute it out \[ \frac{\cos x}{x} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^nx^{2n-1}}{(2n)!} \]
yes that's it @agentx5
all has mistake!
where @mahmit2012 ?
all !but it is time to pray i wll come back and show you
\[ \int \sum_{n = 1}^\infty {(-1)^nx^{2n-1}\over (2n)!} dx = \sum_{n=1}^\infty {(-1)^nx^{2n}\over 2n(2n)!} \]
after pray !
lol ... where did i make mistake??
Did we do the same @experimentX ? besides that you completed it already.
I think we did.
n=1, n=0
yes but obviously "ALL" is wrong :D
first of all the original question has interval [0,inf) and it has many different solution to get the answer. and if you are looking for undefined integral so just a matching series is the answer ! but with a log function.
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