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∼(p ∧ q), ∼p ∧ ∼q Use De Morgan’s laws to determine whether the two statements are equivalent.
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I need help with this!!!
for the statements to be equivalent the following proposition has to be a tautology \[ \large \neg(p\wedge q)\leftrightarrow(\neg p \wedge\neg q) \]
So does that mean that it is or isnt equivalent? This one stumped me.
The professor didnt go over this one :(
they are not equivalent becuase DeMorgan's laws are \[ \large \neg(p\wedge q)\equiv(\neg p\vee\neg q) \] \[ \large \neg(p\vee q)\equiv(\neg p\wedge\neg q) \]
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Oh ok thank you!!!
u r w
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