Question

∼(p ∧ q), ∼p ∧ ∼q
Use De Morgan’s laws to determine whether the two statements are equivalent.

Answer 1

I need help with this!!!

Answer 2

for the statements to be equivalent the following proposition has to be a tautology
\[ \large \neg(p\wedge q)\leftrightarrow(\neg p \wedge\neg q) \]

Answer 3

So does that mean that it is or isnt equivalent? This one stumped me.

Answer 4

The professor didnt go over this one :(

Answer 5

they are not equivalent becuase DeMorgan's laws are
\[ \large \neg(p\wedge q)\equiv(\neg p\vee\neg q) \]
\[ \large \neg(p\vee q)\equiv(\neg p\wedge\neg q) \]

Answer 6

Oh ok thank you!!!

Answer 7

u r w