Do you think that Fermat would have been able to successfully prove his Last Theorem if he had not died?
I don't think he would've done it. It was a long proof, after all.
no
No
I have support. Wow.
Please read the question again, @best.shakir
i read the question but not the answer
Yes @ParthKohli He would have .. I think
How so?
his aim .. he would have like to achieve that?
He actually said that the theorem existed just for nothing; he didn't know the proof.
Sometime people get ideas at any instant? I mean may be he was not able to do that before but he would have been after
from what i remember of fermat .... yes
I believe he thought he had a proof, but it was flawed and he didn't see it.
He was a bit of a genius, but he still didn't know the theorem well.
@satellite73 , just want to know if this theorem is really true............ I don't have much about this. so please....
You may ask me, lol. Satellite is not the only genius on this site. Yes it's true.
I tend to think that the path that leads us here took a different route than the path Fermat was on; and that we simply have to explain it using this road, which is alot bumpier than his :)
@ParthKohli I didn't meant that....... \(a^3 + b^3 = (a+b)(a^2 - ab + b^2)\) Thus, \(a^3 + b^3 = a+b\) if \(a^2 + b^2 - ab = 0\) just a thought....... please tell me if I am wrong.
Remember that \(a,b,c\) are supposed to be integers.
Oh sorry ............. misunderstoof.
* misunderstood.......
but \(\large 0^n = 0^n + 0^n\) What now ....... ?
'no three positive integers'. 0 is not said to be positive, Vishesh. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fermat's_Last_Theorem
Vishwesh*
Ohhh thanks a lot @ParthKohli It really helped me........... :)
My pleasure!
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