Need help with Taylor expansion of an integral: integral from o to 1 of Sin(t)/t I am having trouble setting this Taylor series up...for example, will the a=1? I know I need to use (x-a)^n/n! to set up the polynomials, but I'm not sure what a would be.
\[\int\limits_{0}^{1}\sin t/t \]
nope, I don't think I know what we're talking about here...
oh but apparently I just went up a level for typing that remark lol
Oh also, when solving for the coefficients, should I plug in zero or 1?
Welcome to level 99
haha
@mdntjem u just need to write taylor expansion of \(\sin t\) for \(-\infty<t<\infty\) \[\sin t=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n\ \frac{t^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}\]
why does it talk about the integral then?
I don't see the relation...
so when I find the dervatives, I just use sinx not sinx/x?
well... i think she wants to represent the integral \[\int \frac{\sin t}{t}dt\] in the form of a series
Yep, that's what the integral is supposed to look like, but it's missing the limits.
so you still want to integrate the series term by term or what?
because I suppose you could do that, right?
@mdntjem divide by t that expression mukushla mentioned above.
...and then integrate it, yes?
yes
ok that makes some sense but how do you evaluate it as a definite integral?
answer will be a series again...
Oh I did not know you could do that, thanks! Yea, I just need to find the first 3 NON-zero terms of the series and the add em up
its easy . it depends on the margin of error. she can integrate a few terms. (it will be series but she can add the terms to get value ). there will be some error associated.
but I am still confused would my a=1 when evaluating the polynomials? And would this be centered around zero since I was not give a value?
I think the question should have been to find the taylor approximation about a=0 (maclaurin series).otherwise it would not be possible to approximate the given integral . Can you check your Question in the book again.?
i think she has problem with choosing \(a\) for writing taylor expansion...she can use both \(a=0\) and \(a=1\) (or any other neighborhood) for evaluating the integral.... better to use \(a=0\) brcause obtaining the coefficients will be very easy about \(a=0\)...
Okay, your guys are right, it does not make sense for a=1 I just wrote it all out
Because I need to plug 1 in for x in order to evaluate the series
Thank you all for your help!
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