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Mathematics 6 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

I know this might involve many things, but can someone give me a brief explanation on why are there more irrational numbers than real numbers if both are infinite?

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

same reason \[e^{i \pi} = -1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Could you go further?

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

lol that actually didnt make sense..

OpenStudy (anonymous):

irrational numbers ARE real numbers...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

irrationals are a subset of the real numbers

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@TuringTest

OpenStudy (anonymous):

But someone told me that or something like that... I don't get it

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

you'd rather believe that guy you met in real life rather than a random person in the internet with a profile pic of a green owl!!? o.O i think you should trust the random owl more..

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I think it has something to do with this: "rational numbers are what is known as a countable set, one that can be matched with the natural numbers. However, the irrational numbers are uncountable, which is a larger amount."

OpenStudy (shane_b):

Go with the Owl...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

C'mon guys, this is a serious question. I just don't know how to prove it.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@MelindaR there is going to be an argument that given any two "closest" rational numbers you can always find another one (necessarily irrational) between. It will have something to do with Dedekind. And the idea will be that if you just magnify the number line, you can do that as many times as you like and you still have a number line. Populated mainly by irrationals.

OpenStudy (shane_b):

But it's been answered. All real numbers includes all irrational numbers...so the number of irrational numbers cannot be larger than the number of real numbers.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I don't believe this. Are you absolutely sure.

OpenStudy (shane_b):

Both go to infinity yes...but by definition, irrational numbers are a subset of real numbers.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@mahmit2012

OpenStudy (anonymous):

OK I see, I misread the problem. Real = irrational + rational. But maybe the question means rational v. irrational. I get why you all think it's simple.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

But there are more irrational than rational, right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Yes

OpenStudy (anonymous):

But the question says, real

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Oh, I meant rational.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Maybe you should post it again, correctly?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Why are there more irrational numbers than rational numbers?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I'm not sure of the proof. I'm looking for someone who remembers it. But basically, there is a limit to the number of rational numbers in any interval. So you just blow up the number line until those marks get far apart. And there are lots of irrationals in between. (Dedekind, as I said). But I don't know the precise formulation. In particular, how to show that the rationals are limited within an interval. @jim_thompson5910

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

you cant, there are an infinite number of rationals in any interval

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

so the statement "there is a limit to the number of rational numbers in any interval" isn't true

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

the difference between the rationals and irrationals is that the rationals are countable while the irrationals are not

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So there are not more irrational than rational in a given interval?

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

the rational set is countably infinite while the irrational set is uncountably infinite

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

there are more irrational (so to speak)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

How so?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@MelindaR I'm not satisfied. But I'll have to get back to you.

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

if the two were the same, then we can say that the set of irrationals were countably infinite...which just isn't true

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Well, you guys were making fun of me because of my typo... That's actually a hard question. I've tried reading about it but I didn't understand much.

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

i didn't mean to make fun

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

oh are you talking about previous posters?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Yes, it's not about you, Jim. Thanks a lot for your explanation

OpenStudy (shane_b):

I don't think anyone was making fun of anyone

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

alright, just checking...you're welcome

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@MelindaR I just meant, if it has an error, it's better to start fresh. Maybe more people would look. I think it's a great question.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Alright, Telliott. Thanks

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Quote from http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20070906084238AAuj5ww It turns out that there are actually more irrational numbers than rational numbers. The rationals are COUNTABLY infinite; the irrationals are UNCOUNTABLY infinite. This means that the set of irrational numbers has a cardinality called the "cardinality of the continuum," which is strictly greater than the cardinality of the set of natural numbers (i.e., the set {1,2,3,4,...}). The set of rational numbers has the same cardinality (number of elements) as the set of natural numbers, so there are more irrationals (numbers like pi and e) than rationals (numbers like 1/2, 3/4, etc). But don't believe everythng you read on the internet!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@mahmit2012 any comment?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

One more quote: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irrational_number Informally, this means that an irrational number cannot be represented as a simple fraction. Irrational numbers are those real numbers that cannot be represented as terminating or repeating decimals. As a consequence of Cantor's proof that the real numbers are uncountable (and the rationals countable) it follows that almost all real numbers are irrational.[1]

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