can someone refresh me on how to do this find the general solution using laplace transform y' = e^t ; y(0) = 2
firstly apply laplace transform to both side of equation
here's what i got.. \[y' = e^t\] \[\implies sy(s) - y'(0) = \frac{1}{s-a}\] \[\implies sy(s) - 2 = \frac{1}{s-a}\] \[\implies sy(s) = \frac{1 + 2(s-a)}{s-a}\] \[\implies y(s) = \frac{1 + 2s - 2a}{s(s-a)}\] idk if it's right...and even if it is idk how to proceed from there
i think i did something wrong...
? \[y(s)=\frac{1}{s(s-a)}+\frac{2}{s}\]
\[L(y')=sy(s)-y(0)\]
uhh yeah...lemme do this again
and u have a=1
you combined but its much easier to keep them seperate
what do you mean i have a=1
just use partial n the first and the second is more simple
he means a=1 for \[e^{at}=e^{1t}\]
ohh lol yeah...i forgot
\[\frac{1}{s(s-1)}=\frac{A}{s}+\frac{B}{s-1}\] use coverup method
coverup method?
i am completely clueless about what you're doing now....although im getting the feeling you're getting this more complicated than it is...
cover up method is just another way of partial fractions if you like to expand thats fine also \[1=(s-1)a+sB when s=0 -1=A when s=1 B=1
did you tke the inverse laplace in the last step?
yes
i erased so that you could gt the answer yourself though
you can check it at the end for the initial to make sure it's write
right*
ohhh so you have to take tehe inverse laaplace in the end to get the final answer? always?
yes because you have \[F(s)\] and you want \[f(t)\]
ohhh
i didnt know tha..thanks
\[L({f(t)})=F(s)\] \[L^{-1}(F(s))=f(t)\]
have you taken linear... these are a lot like kernels the chapter about them... my book actually classifies them as kernel (K(s))
i dont believe so
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