Give a counterexample for the following statement: \( \overline{\overline A } \leq \overline{\overline B } \text{ implies } A \subset B \)
What does \(\overline{\overline{S}}\) mean? Is that the cardinality of the set?
yes
\(A=\mathbb{Z}\) \(B=\mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}\)
There are numerous counterexamples.
Well \( \mathbb{Z}\) is a subset of \( \mathbb{R} \)
The cartesian product of two sets is a set of ordered pairs.
Can you explain to me what cardinality actually means
how about B is all even numbers and A is the first ten odd number? (I don't know if you need infinite sets or what)
not sure either. i am just trying to figure out all this stuff
but I am assuming that it refers to denumerable sets
No, uncountable sets still have cardinalities.
I have never taken this kind of math, but cardinality as I basically understand it is how many elements it has (I don't know about sets of ordered pairs)
Ordered pairs act as elements of the set. They do not change anything.
so what's the matter with my finite example?
Nothing!
oh, sweet :)
ok so how abt this example: A= \( \mathbb{Q^-} \) B= \( \mathbb{Q^+} \)
hahahahahah
like do the cardinalities equal each other?
Yes.
they are both\[\aleph_0\]right? (side question)
lol I think soooo
Yep. They can both be put on a one-to-one correspondence with the positive integers.
I gotta take this formally some day... thanks!
THANKS GUYSSSS :))
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