hmm
It's not true every subset of R is bounded above.
But the rest of what you're proposing makes sense.
Can you prove that max(a,b) is an upper bound for A U B ?
One way to argue is by contraction. Suppose max(a,b) were not an upper bound for AUB. That is, there exists \( x \in A \cup B \) such that \[ x > max(a,b) \] Well, as \( max(a,b) \geq a \) and \( max(a,b) \geq b \), that must mean that \[ x > a \ \ \ \ \hbox{and} \ \ \ \ x > b \] But as x is a member of A or B, it must be bounded above by at least one of a or b. Contradiction.
I think I got the R thinkg confused with, every subset of R that is upperbounded has a supremum.
yes
o great, that makes perfect sense thank you.
so crazy how hard it is to say the simplest thing.
not hard but ....
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