Use green's theorem to evaluate the line integral along the given positive orientated curve. \[\int_c xe^{-2x}dx+(x^4+2x^2y^2)dy\] C is the boundary of the region between the circles \[x^2+y^2=1\] and \[x^2+y^2=4\] \[\int\int_D\left[\frac{\partial}{\partial x}(x^4+2x^2y^2)-\frac{\partial}{\partial y}(xe^{-2x})\right]dA \] \[\int\int_D(4x^3+4xy^2)dA\] would I do greens theorem again? \[\int\int_D\left[\frac{\partial}{\partial x}(4xy^2)-\frac{\partial}{\partial y}(4x^3)\right]dA \] \[\int\int_D4y^2dA\]
to my understanding for last stage u just need to compute double integral
yeah, and I would do it in polar coordinates
\[\iint\limits_D(4x^3+4xy^2)dA\]\[D:\{(r,\theta)|1\le r\le2,0\le\theta\le2\pi\}\]\[x=r\cos\theta~~~~~~~y=r\sin\theta~~~~~~~~dA=rdrd\theta\]
I understand everything you wrote except for \[dA=rdrd\theta\]
that is dA in polar coordinates... if you want to prove that you need to use the jacobian (not sure if you're doing that yet)
not yet
so then you have to take my word for it that you need to add another r in the dA for polar coordinates or http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polar_coordinate_system
fair enough. So now we have: \[\int_1^2\int_0^{2\pi}(4x^3+4xy^2)rdrd\theta\]
Nope that's wrong, let me try it again
gotta sub in for x and y
\[\int_1^2\int_0^{2\pi}(4(rcos\theta)^3+4(rcos\theta)(rsin\theta)^2)rdrd\theta\]
\[\int_1^2\int_0^{2\pi}(4r^4cos^3+4r^4cos\theta sin^2\theta)drd\theta\]
yep now use some identities
well, one identity just factor it right...
would I take the 4r^4 out of the first integral since we're doing the integral with respect to theta first?
try taking out 4r^4cos(theta)
I mean factoring it that way rather
that would give me \[cos^2\theta+sin^2\theta=1\] and now i would take the integral of \[\int_1^2\int_0^{2\pi}4r^4cos\theta drd\theta\]
yes, and you will see quickly what it becomes
we would be left with \[\int_1^24r^4dr\] because the integral of cosine is sine and then (0-0) \[4\left[\frac{r^5}{5}\right]_1^2=4(\frac{32}{5}-\frac15)\]
what is\[\int_0^{2\pi}\cos\theta d\theta\]?
is sine
and after evaluating...?
sine of 2pi is zero and so is sine of zero
and so that's where we end, because the integral of zero is zero so the next one goes away....
oh that would make the double integral zero?
yep
I hate when that happens; always makes me think I messed up but here I don't think so
oh ok. Thanks! Does that mean there is no area between the region bounded by those two circles?
no, it means that when you integrate that function over the area the answer is zero. obviously the area between a circle radius 1 and radius 2 itself is not zero; it can easily be calculated with old-fashioned geometry
which, according to green's theorem, means that the line integral is zero
I thought we were integrating to find the area?
oh sorry we're evaluating the curve
no, and area integral would be\[\iint\limits_D dA\]and nothing more that is different than\[\iint\limits_Df(x)dA\]in which case you are integrating a \(function\) over an area
greens theorem relates a line integral over a closed curve to a surface integral of a related function
\[\oint\limits_C Pdx+Qdy=\iint\limits_D\left(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial P}{\partial y}\right)dA\]
it's a relation between the two ideas; a closed line integral and the surface integral on the right.
I think I'm starting to get the idea now. I'll do more problems to get a better grip on greens theorem.
here's a good reference: http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcIII/GreensTheorem.aspx
I can't believe I forgot to reference Paul again!
yeah, apul has a similar problem in example 3 a note about LaTeX: to make the double integral look better, and to get the D underneath the signs, try \iint\limits_D\[\iint\limits_D\] likewise \iiint\[\iiint\] is a triple integral and \oint\[\oint\]is a line integral
paul*
Yeah i thought my integrals were quite far apart. I'll do that for this next problem i'm working on. Thanks buddy!
\oint is a *closed* line integral I mean..
anytime!
dude I forgot to give you a medal!
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