Show that f(x)= (see attached) is one-to-one and find (f^-1)'(0) (f^-1 signifies inverse).
\[ \int_{2}^{x} \sqrt{1+t^2} dt \] ?
Yes
Yes
well, showing that it's one to one and the derivative of its inverse at x=0
what shall we do for one-to-one? \(f(x)=f(y)\) -----> \(x=y\) am i right?
Yes, that makes sense
well one-to-one just means that there cannot be multiple x-values at one y-value
I feel like I should take the derivative and solve for x but this in an integral which confuses me
first try to one to one ok let suppose \(f(x)=f(y)\) or \[\int_{2}^{x} \sqrt{1+t^2} dt=\int_{2}^{y} \sqrt{1+t^2} dt\]\[\int_{2}^{x} \sqrt{1+t^2} dt-\int_{2}^{y} \sqrt{1+t^2} dt=0\]\[\int_{x}^{y} \sqrt{1+t^2} dt=0\]
make sense?
Yes... what rule are you applying from step 2 to step 3 out of curiosity
Additivity of integration on intervals
Okay so continue
so \(x=y\)
and function is one to one
And how would I go about getting the inverse of an integral... is it just switch the interval and add a negative in front?
emm...i think we cant calculate \(f^{-1} (x)\) directly from an integral... but we can find \(f^{-1} (0)\) and so \((f^{-1})'(0)\)
Okay can you show me how to do that
ok befor that u must know that : \[\text{Derivative of the Inverse Function : } \ \ \ (f^{-1}(x))'=\frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(x))}\]
and what is \(f'\) here?
isn't the derivative of an integral just the function inside the integral
so sqrt (1+t^2) I would think
yeah libniz rule
@rymdenbarn waiting for when u r online
I got it thanks
very well....:)
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!