Solve this math problem for the glory of Satan.
\[\zeta(s)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{ 1 }{ n^5 }\]
what the hell?
\[\large\zeta (5)=-\frac{16}{11}\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\left( 1+2(-1)^n\right) H_n}{n^4}\]\[\large \text{Where}~H_n=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k}\]See: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RiemannZetaFunction.html http://gery.huvent.pagesperso-orange.fr/articlespdf/Autour_primitive.pdf
>Everyone cheated.
this isn't easy ... probably relies on Riemann hypothesis that hasn't been proven yet.
No, try solving for all positive integers.
I don't know ... and i would also like to know.
according to the page i posted above ... it says it's unproved theorem.
By analytic continuation, and thus, by analytic continuation, \[\zeta(-1)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}n = -1/2\]
oh ,
Hail Satan for this math problem.
try posting it here http://math.stackexchange.com/ I'm just starting complex analysis
interesting....so many people willing to solve for the glory of satan...interesting
lets not
lemme ask people on chat.
i'll ask @rezas for this problem but not for the glory of satan !!!
those guys on MSE ... they say there isn't elementary expression for odd values of Riemann zeta function
Everyone who attempts to solve this is doing it for the glory of Satan.
i've evaluated \[\sum \frac{1}{n^3}\]with fourier series be4 i'll go for\[\sum \frac{1}{n^5}\]later..
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/35412/does-zeta3-have-a-connection-with-pi
is that 2 or 3 ?
i guess the problems is same for all $$1 \over n^{2k+1}$$
I thought this kinda form would appear with Fourier series http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=sum [1%2F%282n%2B1%29^3%2C+{n%2C+0%2C+Infinity}]
\[ {1 \over (2n+1)^3}\] relies on zeta after all
for now ... i give up :(((((
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