Challenge question: Give a proof that Pi is irrational. (NO need to prove transcendental if not necessary)
proof by contradiction :)
proof by bandwagon
Let's assume that \(\pi\) is rational.\[\pi = {p \over q} \quad(\gcd{(p,q) = 1)} \]\[\pi q = p \]and now contradict.
Wait... I think I am going wrong.
I have to excuse myself- got to leave. MEDALS AND MENTIONS AND fan will be given TO anybody and everybody who CONTRIBUTES to the CORRECT answer
A number is irrational if: 1) It has infinite number of decimal numbers after the decimal. 2) It shows no pattern after the decimal(there are no repeating digits) Pi possesses all the qualities shown above.
I don't think I am good at proofs. :(
the proof of irrationality of pi is not simple as other numbers http://www.proofwiki.org/wiki/Pi_is_Irrational
\[\tan^{-1}x=x-\frac{x^3}{3!}.........\] put x=1 we get \[\frac{\pi}{4}=1-\frac{1}{3!}+\frac{1}{5!}-............................\]
wow. thats pretty nutty.
a friend of mine tried to formulate it using two concentric circles ... almost spent a week ... in the end he found that he was wrong.
was a good week though
crazy guy!!
Now we must proof that the series converges and we will have it
lol what?
nowdays there's a concept called rational trigonometry ... http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rational_trigonometry ... quite different from it. though i don't understand it ... might be what you are looking for
This whole post is a waste of time. You know why? Because Pi is wrong: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jG7vhMMXagQ&feature=edu&list=PL5F03A9D6D278C5D9
Pi is not really wrong ... if it would have been replaced by tau then things would have been much simpler. well ... to me doesn't make much difference.
I think it can be proved with Taylor's series error, I saw a proof of e being irrational in Calculus I course with taylor's series.
wow tau owns.
man i have not that patience to read proofs about pi irrationality or e but sin 1 is better
eem of course e's proof is much simpler than pi
i forgot for sin(1) though ...
IT is proved that if x is non-zero and rational then this expression must be irrational. Since tan(π⁄4) = 1, it follows that π⁄4 is irrational and therefore that π is irrational.....
@mayankdevnai This is mcuh more elegant - only if the statement " if x is non-zero and rational then this expression must be irrational" can be proven though.
@mayankdevnani This is mcuh more elegant - only if the statement " if x is non-zero and rational then this expression must be irrational" can be proven though.
@Mikael oh!! i tried it by step by step...
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