Please, would anyone help me with this? I'm looking for a proof that pi is irrational.
I did already, the proof I saw made a step I can't follow, so I came here to see if anyone ahs a simpler one.
unlikely. it is not like proving that \(\sqrt{2}\) is irrational. it is going to take some doing no matter which proof you use
Ok then, so could you help me with this crucial step? "We define the polynomial function: ∀x∈R:f(x)=xn(a−bx)nn! We differentiate this 2n times, and then we build: F(x)=∑j=0n(−1)jf(2j)(x)=f(x)+⋯+(−1)jf(2j)(x)+⋯+(−1)nf(2n)(x) ... that is, the alternating sum of f and its first n even derivatives." I don't get the result of differentiating 2n times, it seems like it's skipping steps.
the wiki proof i am looking at has something similar, is that what you are looking at? it defines F as the sum of f and its first n even derivatives.
Yes, I guess it could help.
Thanks.
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