This is an excerpt from my book, where they are deriving $F = m \times a$.

They reached to a point $F = k \times m \times a$, but then they said, "The value of $k$ in SI units is 1."

Question

This is an excerpt from my book, where they are deriving $F = m \times a$.

They reached to a point $F = k \times m \times a$, but then they said, "The value of $k$ in SI units is 1."

parthkohli · Answer

How can you even assume $k $ to be 1? And $k$ isn't a measurement unit!

anonymous · Answer

Basically$$F\propto a$$and$$F\propto m$$
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Experimental facts.
Therefore
$$F=kma$$
But what physict wants k to be= 0.234 with imperial units or some crazy thing they still use in America? So we define k to equal 1 for our convenience.

So, in short, we twist the magnitudes of out measurement units around to ensure that k=1.

anonymous · Answer

hm, u ASSUME it to be one for simplicity? u can ASSUME it to be anything

parthkohli · Answer

Assumptions by physicists? That's weird!

anonymous · Answer

oh dear, ALL science is based on two things: ASSUMPTIONS n FACTS