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Use the result that the limit as h->0 of (1-cos h)/h^2 = 1/2 to prove that for m not equal to 0, lim as x-> 0 of (cos mx-1)/x^2= -m^2/2. What happens when m=0?
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substitute mx into the first expression (for h)
and then? I don't understand why
\[\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1-\cos(mx)}{x^2}=-m^2\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\cos(mx)-1}{m^2x^2}\]
but the original equation is cosmx-1/x^2
sorry...
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\[\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\cos(mx)-1}{x^2}=-m^2\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1-\cos(mx)}{m^2x^2}\]
okay, NOW you should be able to take it from here lol
I got it! Thanks
welcome
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