find area of region y=xsin(x^2) on the interval [o,pi]
u know u should integrate for finding area right?
yeah but its been a minute since ive done this and im extremely rusty
i know you use f(a) - f(b)
emm..this is what we have\[\int_{0}^{\pi} x\sin x^2 \ \text{d}x\]
can you show me the steps? is it simply f(a)-f(b) of x - f(a)-f(b) of sinx^2?
I think u-sub works here, right?
He didn't say under the curve, so I'm assuming you'd need to break that integral up into 3 parts, and take the abs value of one part because it goes below x axis
well this is a u-sub integration let\[u=x^2\]\[du=2x\text{d}x\]\[\int_{0}^{\pi^2} \frac{1}{2} \sin u \text{d}u\]
ahh...thats a good point @Agent47 mentioned
@Agent47 always makes good points :D!
its just find the area enclosed by that equation. honestly i dont know where to begin to solve
but id say its just integrating because its impossible to solve \[x\sin x^2=0\]
exactly. I was going to use integration by parts and set uprime to \[\sin^{2}\] and v = x , vprime=1
by parts should work too,
It's more difficult, though . .
u-substitution is short and sweet.
im not familiar with u-substitution
Check @mukushla 's third reply; he sets it up for you.
ohhhhhhhh
Isn't that a lot prettier than an integration-by-parts mess?
so completely bypass integration by parts and just go straight into solving the definite integral, subbing u out for pi and 0 and computing f(a) - f(b)???
yeah much much prettier
i still havent found the answer
its not \[\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }-\cos \int\limits_{0}^{\pi}\] is it?
im sorry cosu
Ok, start with the substitution like Mukushla showed: Let u = x^2, so du = 2x dx
x dx = half of du, so your integral becomes \[\int\limits x \sin(x^2) dx \rightarrow \frac{1}{2} \int\limits \sin(u) du\]
the integral of sin(u) is -cos(u), so you have \[-\frac{1}{2} \cos (u), u=x^2 \rightarrow -\frac{1}{2} \cos (x^2)\] Evaluate from 0 to π and you're done.
Be careful with the limits. I usually like to leave it indefinite until the end and then undo the substitution so I can keep the same limits, but really \[\int\limits_{0}^{π} x \sin(x^2) dx = \frac{1}{2}\int\limits_{0}^{π^2}\sin(u) du, \space u=x^2\]
So the final answer should read... \[-\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }\cos(\pi ^{2}) -(-\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }\cos(0) )\]
which gives -1/2 * 1 - (-1/2 * 1)???
which is 0.. which cant be right
Depends . . If you are subtracting areas below the x-axis, then maybe. If you add all the absolute values together, it should be something closer to 1.
But the way I solved it is right though?
Hmm, what's cos(π^2)?
cos(pi) is -1, which squared would equal 1. My calculator read -.9026853619
Square the π before taking cosine.
(order of operations . . .)
i still get the same answer
You mean -.9026853619, right?
yes
Ok, then go from there.
.951342681?
Yeah, that's what my calculator is telling me too.
Lol alright cool... thankyou
You're welcome. I'm still curious if it was meant to subtract the areas below the x-axis or to add the absolute values of the areas.. I'm also confused why @mukushla said x*sin(x^2)=0 was impossible to solve; I found x=0, x=sqrt(π), x=sqrt(2π), and x=sqrt(3π) on that interval. Using those, you could set up four intervals of integration to find the positive areas of all the regions, . . but perhaps that's more work than it's worth.
ahh...man my brain not functioning well these days .. u r right @CliffSedge .. its possible
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