to prove the statement " if {v1, v2, v3, v4} is linearly independent, then {v1, v2, v3} is also linearly independent." it is easier to prove the contrapositive: "if {v1, v2, v3} is linearly dependent, then {v1, v2, v3, v4} is also linearly dependent." Prove the contrapositive.
Have any thoughts?
by definition if \(\{v_1,v_2,v_3\}\) is linearly dependent then there are scalars \(a,b,c\) not all zero such that \[ \large av_1+bv_2+cv_3=0 \] from this we get \[ \large av_1+bv_2+cv_3+0v_4=0 \] where not all the scalars are zero. I.e., the set \(\{v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4\}\) is linearly dependent.
@Jemurray3 , i do actually. i know that in order for a set to be linearly dependent, at least one of the vectors have to be linear combinations of the others. i think the question is telling us that {v1, v2, v3} are linear combinations of each other. (not really sure though) and then i get stuck..
As mentioned above, the (equivalent) definition of linearly dependent vectors is a set such that the only combination of them that equals zero has zero for all its coefficients.
@Jemurray3 u meant "independent" not "dependent". right?
yep
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