How can I show that the function f(x)=(1/x)-(cos(x)/sin(x)), ∀x∈R and x≠nπ,n∈Z, is strictly increasing on each interval (nπ,(n+1)π. if the inequality |sin(x)|<|x| is used it have to be proven as well.
\[f(x)=\frac{1}{x}-\cot x\]???
so we must prove\[f'(x)=-\frac{1}{x^2}+1+\cot^2 x>0\] for \(n\pi<x<(n+1)\pi\)
Yes, just posted it in the other form becuase they wrote it that way, but again yes.
\(f'(x)=-\frac1{x^2}+\frac1{\sin^2x}\) Using your inequality: \(\frac1{\sin^2x}=\frac1{|\sin x|^2}>\frac1{x^2}\) or \(\frac1{\sin^2x}-\frac1{x^2}>0\) on each interval (nπ,(n+1)π) So, \(f'(x)=-\frac1{x^2}+\frac1{\sin^2x}>0\). It means that your function is strictly increasing on each interval (nπ,(n+1)π).
How do you get f'(x) to that? Can follow you in the first part, but the second not quite.
Can you find the derivative of your function?
Ok now i got it. Sorry just had to try it by hand.
Are you satisfied with the result or you have any questions?
I think so the reason emm.. can you elaborate the inequality?
Yes. What about a geometric proof?
Would be fine.
|dw:1348073687148:dw| There is the circumference or the radius = 1. Area of the sector will be \(\frac x2\) and the area of the triangle will be \(\frac {\sin x} 2\). It is obvious that the area of the sector is bigger than the area of the triangle. So \(\frac{\sin x}2<\frac x 2\) or \(\sin x< x\).
I see, and the inequality you show in the caculation is just a rewriteing of this inequality?
Yes. But I proved it for xє[0,п/2]. You can get your inequality from mine.
No i ment this one (see the attached file)
It is the consequence or the first inequality.
Ok. I'll say thank you so much. Feel like i got it. Ones again thank you
No problem. Ask me again you you'd like!
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