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Mathematics 6 Online
OpenStudy (frostbite):

An equation f is given by f (x) = (1 / x) - (cos (x) / (sin (x)). Prove that the equation f (x) = 0 has no solutions in (0, π) and has 1 solution in the interval (π, 2π).

OpenStudy (frostbite):

The proof most be shown mathematical and not graphical.

OpenStudy (nipunmalhotra93):

f(x)=0 will simplify to tanx=x. You can show that this holds for no x in 0 to pi/2 and pi/2 to pi using taylor expansion.

OpenStudy (frostbite):

Emm i haven't learned about taylor expansions and Taylor polynomials. so there you lost me

OpenStudy (frostbite):

or at least not yet.

OpenStudy (nipunmalhotra93):

actually, to express trigonometric functions in terms of polynomials, you need taylor series. As x is a polynomial, you you need taylor series to express tanx in terms of x.

OpenStudy (nipunmalhotra93):

you can only do it graphically then.

OpenStudy (frostbite):

Any chance you can give a 10 sec couse? ^^

OpenStudy (frostbite):

*course

OpenStudy (nipunmalhotra93):

ask anything you want.... :)

OpenStudy (nipunmalhotra93):

you can give the graphical stuff an analytical treatment too....

OpenStudy (frostbite):

Emm... what to do, now i just fasted looked up in my book about Taylor polynomials of trigonometric functions, but i don't see the connection in what we want to show

OpenStudy (nipunmalhotra93):

see... when you have any trigonometric function f(x), you can do absolutely nothing to solve an equation like f(x)=P(x), where P(x) is a polynomial. Solving means finding an x that satisfies this equation. Clearly, in our case, f(x)= tanx and P(x) is x. So, using taylor series, you can find an x that is the solution to this equation (if it exists)

OpenStudy (frostbite):

I see, but what would our taylor series be then?

OpenStudy (nipunmalhotra93):

Actually, taylor's thm is more complicated than you think it is. It is true for the function in only an interval (you won't be able to understand the condition now). It'd be better if you study it first. You'll have to expand tanx about x=0 first. Ant then, you'll have to expand it about x=pi.

OpenStudy (nipunmalhotra93):

It'd make much sense if you try to understand this question without perfectly understanding the theorem...

OpenStudy (nipunmalhotra93):

The best thing you can do to solve this problem analytically is to do a graphical analysis. This way, you will still solve the question... but without drawing the graph.

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