\[(f\Rightarrow t)\wedge (f\Rightarrow f)\]
Yes.
can you explain why , please
Oh, I was being a jerk. I can't actually read the question, and thought it wasn't a yes/no question. My bad.
well the statement is true,
I'm sorry, what's the middle symbol?
conjunction, kinda like AND
That's what I thought. But then the statement has to truth value, does it? F maps to T, and then F maps to itself which is the... reflexive property.
So is it actually saying something, or am I misunderstanding.
im not really used to the \(\Rightarrow\) symbol in this question it means a hypothetical proposition
The best way I can describe what I'm thinking is that you only stated a presupposition, but asked no questions. F maps to T, and F maps to F. The first part is the presupposition. The second part is identity. I don't think you can infer anything else from this.
what in gods name is that?? yea...i'm saving myself before it's to late.
GOODNIGHT EVERBODY ;D
It's a statement. I don't actually see a question.
a statement can be true or false
Okay, this statement is non-contradictory. So probably true as a result. You define a function \(f\) to be mapped to \(t\). Then you add the condition that \(f\) also maps to \(f\). Unless I'm very well mistaken, the property of identity is an axiom, so neither condition falsifies the other, and you have a statement that is ostensibly true. It's like saying, "If \(p\) then \(q\), and if \(p\) then \(p\)." Sure, that's true. Because of this straightforwardness, I think I'm misinterpreting some symbol somewhere.
you can make a truth table if you like
\[\begin{array}{ccc}\ \psi&\phi&\psi\Rightarrow\phi\\ \text{____}&\text{____}&\text{____}\\t&t&t\\ t&f&f\\ f&t&t\\f&f&t \end{array}\] how can it map to two places at once?
the statement \((p\to q)\land (p\to p)\) is not always true
Ignore me, then, I'm misunderstanding something!
\(p\to p\) is a tautology, but the conjunction is not always true
that is to say \((p\to q)\land (p\to p)\) is identical to \(p\to q\)
The tautology doesn't modify the p to q truth value at all, so if we presuppose that p to q, isn't it tautological to say that p to q is true?
t for true f for false
maybe i do not understand the question to say something like "this is true" means to me that it is always true, i.e. that it is a tautology. like for example \(p\lor \lnot p\)
thats right
Maybe the second tautology isn't a tautology. The premise f is false, maybe, is what it's saying. Since you have the premise f being both true and false (f to t, and f to f-alse) you have a contradiction.
but it is entirely possible i did not understand the question, because there is not a question here, just a statement \((f\to t)\land (f\to f)\)
My original issue with it. I'm thinking that not all the f's are the same.
i am not really sure what is being asked, but it is not the case that the above statement is TRUE in the sense that i can be replaced in a truth table by \(T\)
oh
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