Show that: \[\overline{A \cap B} \equiv \overline A \cup \overline B\]
this has something to do with set theory
break the line, change the sign
like i said it's set theory so it's not that simple
it has to be proven
Assume: (A∩B)′⊈(A′∪B′) ∴∃x such that x∈(A∩B)′, x∉(A′∪B′) [x∉(A′∪B′)]⟹(x∉A′∧x∉B′) (x∈A∧x∈B) [x∈(A∩B)] [x∉(A∩B)′] ⊕ (contradiction) ∴(A∩B)′⊆(A′∪B′) … (1)Proposition: (A′∪B′)⊆(A∩B)′ Proof: (by contradiction) Assume: (A′∪B′)⊈(A∩B)′ ∴∃x such that x∉(A∩B)′, x∈(A′∪B′) [x∉(A∩B)′]⟹[x∈(A∩B)] ⟹(x∈A∧x∈B) ⟹[x∉A′∧x∉B′)] ⟹[x∉(A′∪B′)] ⊕ (contradiction) ∴(A′∪B′)⊆(A∩B)′ … (2) By (1) and (2), (A′∪B′)=(A∩B
...i do not understand a word of that...
mind explaining those notations?
The negation of a conjunction is the disjunction of the negations. The negation of a disjunction is the conjunction of the negations.
huh?
your taking discrete math? or this is for fun?
this is discrete math
why is (A∩B)′⊈(A′∪B′)
so this is an assignment?
what does that mean?
not exactly. im trying to understand this
i tried doing \[\overline {A \cap B} = \{x : x \in \neg (A \cap B)\}\] then distribute \[\{ x : x \in (\neg A \cup \neg B)\}\] \[\{x: x \in( \overline A \cup \overline B) \}\] but it seems wrong
like i said before..it has to be proven via set theory...
hmm \[\{ x : \neg ( x \in (A \cap B) ) \}\] \[\implies \{ x : \neg(x \in A \text ^ x \in B)\}\] \[\implies \{x : \neg(x\in A) \text V \neg(x \in B)\}\] \[\implies \{ x : x \cancel \in A \text V x \cancel \in B\}\] \[\implies \{x : x \in \overline A \text V x \in \overline B\}\] \[\implies \overline A \cup \overline B\] does that look right?
i wonder what are the latex codes for conjuction and disjunction
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