lim of cos^2(x)/x as x approaches -infinity

Question

anonymous · Answer

Since
$$cos^2(x) $$
is definitely going to remain finite

$$\frac{cos^2(x)}{x}$$

it going to hit 0 because any finite number divided by infinity is goin to be 0.

Now to actually show this, I would recommend something like squeeze theorem.
A delta epsilon proof would be pretty tricky.

anonymous · Answer

so basically 0/x<=cos^2(x)/x<=1/x

anonymous · Answer

Good job!  Actually I wasn't sure which functions to use, but those functions definitely should work!

anonymous · Answer

so would lim(x approches infinity) (sqrt(x^2+1))/(2x+1) be DNE since it would basically be infinity/infinity?