Question

tough probability problem

Answer 1

on c)

Answer 2

why is it

(1+p)^(m-r)

instead of

(p)^(m-r)

Answer 3

@zarkon, when you come on can you take a look?

Answer 4

@satellite73

Answer 5

whew i can explain that one (and not embarrass myself) because it is algebra

Answer 6

the probability that you decide to buy a ticket and it loses is \(\frac{1-p}{2}\)
viewing this as bernoulli trials (independent repeated experiments with only two outcome) the the formula is
\[P(x=k)=\dbinom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}\] but in this case
\[p=\frac{1-p}{2}\] and therefore
\[1-p=1-\frac{1-p}{2}=\frac{1+p}{2}\]

Answer 7

i guess what i wrote is silly, i should have made the first \(p\) a \(p^*\) or some other variable

Answer 8

I see, all those 'p' were confusing me

Answer 9

thanks for your help

Answer 10

yw