prove to me sum of (n!)/(n)^(n) converge or diverge
it'll converge...use ratio test
lim n---> infintiy a(n+1) /a(n) = 1/e, which is less than 1 so the given series will converge
a(n)= (n!)/(n)^(n)
it will converge only when n(!)/(n)^(n)is greater than one
.... the result of the limit is very baffling to me, how do you get 1/e?
lim n---> infintiy a(n+1) /a(n) =lim n---->infinity [(n+1)!)/(n+1)^(n+1) ] / [(n!)/(n)^(n)] =lim n---->infinity 1/ ( 1+ 1/n)^n
fine?
oh yeh then it will diverge
[(n+1)!)/(n+1)^(n+1) ] / [(n!)/(n)^(n)] = {n/(n+1) } ^n
ha bhai! yeh to bata ki diverge hoga ya converge
and use lim n---> infinity (1 + 1/n) ^n = e
abe bas maths dekh li teri
:)
good job, I don't remember that limit for e. Anyways kudos. Are you a physics major?
yes
lol, it was bad enough. Akash is exceptional in solving that problem.
alright, let's see. I've got plenty of hard questions
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