I need to know if the improper integral from 1 to + infinity ( ln x / ( x + ln (x + 1) ) dx converges. Help?
use limit x -> inf and rewrite the integral, solve using limits and then integrate the result
\[\int\limits_{1}^{+\infty} \left( \frac{ \ln }{ x + \ln x } \right)\]
Even if the boundaries are 1 and c, I still can't integrate.
\[\int_1^\infty\frac{\ln xdx}{x+\ln(x+1)}\]?
Hmm I can't figure this one out, are you suppose to use power series or something? :\
you wrote two different things
I was thinking perhaps we could use a comparison test if we are clever, but is the problem as you typed it in the post, or as you typed it below?
Turing test, yes, what you wrote.
use concept of improper integrals,
As I typed it in the problem.
\[\lim_{t \rightarrow \infty} \int\limits_{1}^{t} f(x)dx\]
i have modified the formula, but put value of f(x)=function you typed in the question
yeah, and how do you integrate that sucker?
...
multiple ways, try adding 1 and taking away one from numerator or double substitutiion
@TuringTest , clearly you use the concept of integration to integrate it.
double sub is a long method but will get you the answer, if you want to avoid the former method
how about a demonstration? what substitution
yeah show us your method @psi9epsilon
I say we look for a comparison, but I can't think of one... I have to leave unfortunately
try comparing to the integral of ln(x) /2x
nice @Algebraic! that should do the trick :)
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