Find the value of the Limit : \[\color{blue}{\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}( \frac{x + \sin(x)}{x + \cos(x)})}\]
just try to apply L'hospital Rule
Okay: After applying L' Hospital Rule for first time, I am getting like this: \[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} (\frac{1 + \cos(x)}{1 - \sin(x)})\]
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{ 1+\cos x }{ 1-\sin x }\]
is this is write?
Yes it is...
then rationalize it,i think you can get the answer
After taking L'Hospital you are saying to apply Rationalization ??? @dirtymind
I think its 1..we have to use expansions of sinx and cosx
Or you are suggesting other method by using Rationalization???
even i say rationlize it
Can you explain properly @AbhimanyuPudi ..
by multiplying and dividing by 1-sin x
yes rationalize it by 1+sinx
1 + sin(x) @uzumakhi
yes apply it
Let us try as you are saying ..
Substitute these formulae: sinx = x - x^3/3! + x^5/51.... cosx = 1 - x^2/2! + x^4/4!...
thanks @waterineyes
why wont you use sandwich ?
\[\frac{(1 + \cos(x)) \cdot (1 + \sin(x))}{\cos^2(x)} \implies \frac{1 + \sin(x) + \cos(x) + \sin(x) \cdot \cos(x)}{\cos^2(x)}\]
I don't know the answer properly..
you can bound it and use sandwich \[\frac{ x-1 }{ x+1 } < .. < \frac{ x+1 }{ x-1 }\]
is there anything wrong here?
What is Sandwich? Ca you explain it I am hearing this word in Limits for first time...
now take sin^2x at denominator of each function and make 1/infinity=0
first of all .. using this sandwich or squeeze gives 1 as the answer.
How can I take that @dirtymind
may i introduce a simpler approach ?
if you have limf(x) and you can bound it by g(x) and h(x) g(x) <= f(x) <= h(x) if limg(x) = limh(x) = L then limf(x) = L
Always @hartnn
put x=1/y when x->infinity, y->0
so as you see lim[ (x-1) / (x+1) ] = lim [ (x+1)/ (x-1) ] = 1 so your limit is 1 .. done
I am getting your point @Coolsector ..
i also liked the sandwitch approach by coolsector
Yeah I got it @Coolsector
now it looks like that i talked to myself:P
Thanks for your precious help...
yw
u could also get it wothout sandwitch
By using your idea @hartnn ??
u know what is lim x->0 x sin(1/x) = ??
0...
0
Yeah I said the same..
sin(1/x) always lies between -1 and 1 and so as x approaches zero, 0<=|x sin(1/x)| <= |x| but since x->0, |x sin(1/x)| must approach zero also. similarly for cos
I liked all the three discussed approaches to this problem...I wish i could give 3 medals to @hartnn , @Coolsector , @AbhimanyuPudi
Then what?? I am not getting properly... @hartnn
ok, u put y=1/x in original limit , what u get ?
Yes you can give 3 medals to all 3 but firstly I must understand the solutions..
\[\frac{\frac{1}{y} + \sin(\frac{1}{y})}{\frac{1}{y} + \cos(\frac{1}{y})}\]
and y->0
And limit y tends to 0 too..
so u have now (1+ysin(1/y)) in numerator , right ?
\[\frac{1 + y \sin(\frac{1}{y})}{1 + y \cos(\frac{1}{y})}\]
There limit is going to 0 so 1/1 is 1.. Is this what you are saying @hartnn
Or I said it in a hurry ??
ok, now since sin fluctuates between 1 and -1 only, but y sin (...) will be very near to 0, because y is very near to 0 so, lim y->0 ysin(1/y) = 0
similarly for denominator
I liked it...but don't we consider sin(1/0)...its not defined, right?
Yeah I got your approach too @hartnn Thanks for this help also...
But we are multiplying it with a number nearer to 0...
sin(1/0) is not defined but here y is NOT 0 its very very near to 0
Excellent!!! got it.
whoa! 8 medals given in this question!!
Sorry not 8.. You have mistaken in a counting..
u guys deserve more, very good explanations xD
:D
Total 9...
yeah, 1 was given after i counted :P
It is more like a Tutorial @hartnn
Hahaha...yea 9..this is first time i've seen these many medals given!!!
yo! 10 now. thnx cool. yes.
lol yes
tutorials should be like this, engaging way
Superb discussion!!
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