Will somebody explain integrals to me?
take calc II
Hey help me, don't rub it in. Explain it to me, if you don't have something even slightly insightful to say don't say it.
integral gives you area under a curve. The simplest way to start is to draw a graph of a horizontal line, like y = 2. Integrating that line "curve" gives you the area under it. Integrating it from say, x=0 to x=1, gives you a rectangle that is 1 unit long by 2 units high, so area is 2. However, integrals allow you to find area under any curve, not just straight lines.
I am not old enough to take calc, I am only 14, but I can do trig.
Thank you
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trig isn't quite enough for integrals...
Cool, now you understand integrals. it's just that easy. Why would you think some random people commenting on some random forum would be a useful substitute for a challenging 12 week course?
@Plutog55 do you want to know how to "do integrals" or just understand what they are?
@Algebraic! is right... you are asking for an explanation that is easily a whole class on its own.
But "area under a curve" is a good quick idea of what an integral means. The opposite of an integral is a derivative.. .also beyond trig... a derivative gives the slope of a curve at any point along the curve. Integrating gives the area under the curve, either in general or over some range of x values.
did I say I won't take the class now? no, I am not stupid. I know trig isn't enough for that. It's just some curiosity, It is in no way a replacement. No harm done, and yes @JakeV8 I would love to know how.
I can't teach you the everything about integrals, but here's a shortcut technique you can play around with. Take a function like f(x) = 2. This is the y=2x line I mentioned earlier. To integrate, you need to think of a new function that has an exponent on the x-term that is 1 larger than the current function. In this function, it is really equivalent to saying f(x) = 2 = 2x^0 So the integral of f(x) will have an exponent of 1... x^1. The other part is that the exponent on the integrated term (in this case 1), ends up as a coefficient in the original term, prior to integrating. For this case, since multiplying by 1 doesn't change anything, you don't see the effect, but for x^2, x^3, and higher, it does make a difference. This is confusing, I'm sure, so let's look at a couple of examples to see the pattern.
1st, integrating f(x) = constant f(x) integral of f(x) 2 2x 3 3x 2nd, integrating f(x) = mx i.e. ,a line f(x) = integral of f(x) x (1/2)x^2 <<-- exponent goes from 1 to 2 ^ <<-- 2 exponent on x^2 multiplies by coefficient (1/2) ^<<<<<<<< to leave x with a coefficient of 1 on the "un-integrated" function
hmmm.....
f(x) integral of f(x) 2x x^2 <<-- same idea as for f(x)=x... now the 2 coefficient doesn't have the (1/2) to cancel, so it shows up in the original f(x) = 2x as the coefficient "2"
f(x) = x^3 integral of f(x) = (1/4)x^4 since to get back to f(x), you would first multiply the exponent 4 by the (1/4) and then reduce the exponent to 3, leaving x^3.
The reason this isn't very obvious yet is that typically you learn the opposite of integrals first... you learn differentiation or "taking derivatives". the derivative of x^2 is found by multiplying by the exponent "2", and then reducing the exponent by 1... derivative of x^2 = 2x Integrals are the opposite... integral of 2x = x^2 then to get back, take the derivative of x^2 to get 2x back again
Ah! OK... I think I get it now. Thank you very much.
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