Hey all, I've been puzzling over this one for awhile now. When we graph velocity (distance/time) versus time, and we take the derivative of this function, we get an acceleration function. If we graph position (just distance) versus time squared, and we take the derivative - do we still get an acceleration function...?
This link says yes: http://wiki.answers.com/Q/What_does_the_slope_of_a_distance_vs_time_squared_graph_represent *but we only get half the acceleration value* - can anyone please explain why?
you integrate acceleration twice to get displacement, if you're dealing with constant acceleration (which you are) 'a' is a constant: \[d = \int\limits_{ }^{ }\int\limits_{ }^{ }a dt = \frac{ a }{2 }t ^{2}\]
Thank you! :) Hmmm... sorry, but I'm not quite seeing yet how this step leads to the 1/2 difference in acceleration values for the displacement vs time^2 and velocity vs time graphs. Would you mind explaining a bit more, please?
Derivative of position (displacement) is velocity. Derivative of velocity is acceleration. Integral of acceleration is velocity. Integral of velocity is displacement.
Oh, sorry, just noticed the 'distance vs. time-squared' bit...
Distance vs. time squared should be linear for constant acceleration (if I'm considering this correctly.)
Yes - our graph of distance vs time squared was linear.
However, the slope of this graph was, say, k. The slope of a different graph (using the same data, but plotted to yield velocity vs time instead) resulted in 2k. Just curious to why that is
plot d vs t^2/2 to get a line with the slope of 'a'
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