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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Chinese Remainder Theorem

OpenStudy (anonymous):

The theorem states that: Suppose \[\gcd(m,n)\] = 1 given \[a, b\] there should be exactly one solution to the system of congurences: \[x = a (\mod m); x = b (\mod n)\] Now that any solution to any congruences should have infinite number solutions. So what does the theorem exactly mean? Thanks

OpenStudy (cruffo):

If \(x_0\) is one solution, then an integer \(x\) satisfies the congruences if and only if \(x\) is of the form \(x = x_0 +kM\) for some integer \(k\), and \(M=mn\).

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so the theorem actually states any 2 solution x_i, x_j must satisfy x_i = x_j (mod mn)

OpenStudy (cruffo):

yes, that's what I remember.

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