when disproving universal quantifiers, a counterexample is stated. When proving existential quantifier, one example that suits the expression is all that's needed. What about in proving universal quantifiers?
\[\forall x f(x)\] Where f(x) is a truth function (could either be true or false) To prove it, get an arbitrary x, and show that f(x) is true.
but even if you get arbitrary x, it does not mean it is applicable for all x
Yes it does...
for axample what's given is \[Q(x) = x < 6\]
When, proving a universal quantifier A is true for all B, you could disprove the converse statement A is untrue for some B.
even if you say \[\text{At} \; Q(4): \\ 4 < 6 \\ \therefore \forall x Q(x) \equiv T\]
this cannot be said...
because at Q(7) 7 < 4 \(\forall\)x Q(x) \(\equiv\) F
The statement is false. You can produce a counterexample.
that's what i'm sayin
saying*
And you did not take an arbitrary value for x, you took a specific value.
by arbitrary you mean..?
I think it best to illustrate via an example: To prove that For all integers, if it is odd, then its square is odd. \[\forall x \in Z, x \ is \ odd \rightarrow x^{2} \ is \ odd\] To prove it Let x be an arbitrary integer (THIS IS WHAT I MEAN) Suppose x is odd. Then x = 2k + 1 for some integer k. Then x^2 = (2k + 1)^2 = 4k^2 + 4k + 1 = 2(2k^2 + 2k) + 1 But 2k^2 + 2k is an integer, therefore x^2 is odd. QED
that's already proving....
i mean "proving" proving
I know, and what did, that's what I mean by taking an arbitrary value, you're not supposed to assign a value to it, as you did by assigning x = 4 and x = 7
but what i did is what i meant
that was what i was asking
I thought you were asking how to prove universal quantifiers...
i was asking how to prove universal quantifiers using *numbers*
Well, that, I can't say for sure, unless you can show me an example of what to prove...
Let P(x) = "x+ 1 > x". Find the truth value of \(\forall\)x P(x) if the domain consists of all real numbers
Hmm... I'm afraid I can only prove this using the method shown above... As you said, examples ain't gonna do it for proving universal quantifiers...
i supose there's no other way then
Let x be a real number 1 > 0 Since x is a real number, by the addition property of inequality, x + 1 > 0 + x x + 1 > x It's possible to prove 1 > 0, but I take it your instructor is not quite that sadistic...
instructor? i have no instructor
Then replace "your instructor is not quite that sadistic..." with "you're not quite that masochistic"
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