Prove: \[\huge (p \leftrightarrow q) \equiv (p \rightarrow q) \wedge (q \rightarrow p)\] without using truth tables
Is that not the definition of equivalence?
it is...but how do you prove it?
You don't prove definitions...
anything's possible...
and this one is
You have a proof?
Well, all right, suppose p↔q Then by definition (p∧q)∨~(p∨q) then (p∨q)→(p∧q) Suppose p then p∨q, by addition then p∧q by modus ponens then q by simplification Therefore, p→q. Suppose q Then q∨p, by addition p∨q, by commutativity then p∧q by modus ponens then p, by simplification Therefore, q→p Thus (p→q)∧(q→p) Hence, (p↔q)→(p→q)∧(q→p)
...i suppose one really shouldn't prove definitions......
Actually, this is one of two. The other definition, is the one I used, the one that uses ~,∧, and ∨, instead of →
\[\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|c|}\hline p&q&p\Rightarrow q&p\Leftarrow q&(p\Rightarrow q) \wedge (p\Leftarrow q)&p\Leftrightarrow q \\\hline\top&\top&\top&\top&\top&\top \\\top&\bot&\bot&\top&\bot&\bot \\\bot&\top&\top&\bot&\bot&\bot \\\bot&\bot&\top&\top&\top&\top \\\hline\end{array}\]
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