Why is \[cos(arctan(x))=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+1} } \] ?
Let \(\arctan(x)\) be \(\rm y\).\[\rm \cos (y)\]Can you find an expression for \(\rm cos(y)\) in terms of \(\rm sine\)?
cosy=sin(y+pi/2)
I'd do this instead...\[\rm \sqrt{1 - \sin^2(y)}\]
OK
I'm stuck on this too. :p
\[1-s^2arctanx=1/(x^2+1)\] No, it seems too messy
|dw:1350743050996:dw|you must be working with this triangle
Not knowingly, but I suppose so.
Genius solution! Thanks.
\[\tan\theta=\frac x1=x\implies\theta=\tan^{-1}x\]\[\cos\theta=\frac1{\sqrt{x^2+1}}\implies\cos(\tan^{-1}x)=\frac1{\sqrt{x^2+1}}\]not sure where this triangle is coming from welcome!
How often is it very useful (i.e. hard not to solve while not) thinking geometrically with trig identities? That is, is it worth doing often or only when I see sqrt(1+x^2) lying about?
I guess you did an integration and substituted x=tan(u) or something. Whenever I do trig substitutions I *always* draw the triangle to reduce things into simpler terms of x at the end, but I don't memorize anything except the trig definitions ant the Pythagorean theorem for that.
and*
OK- it was in fact Taylor seriesing for arctan. I'm not sure where the cosine popped up, though
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