Why is there no y intercept in (x+2)/(x^2-2x)?
Because there is a vertical asymptote there.
ok i see..but if i plug in 0 for x, is the reason it doesnt work because it would be 2/0 which isnt real so its just none?
x = 0 is not in the Domain. It is generally considered inappropriate for the denominator of any expression to be zero (0). Please do NOT simply substitute x = 0. It's not in the Domain, Resist the evil.
is that just because of the x^2??
i just need a simpler way to know there is no y intercept without looking at the asymptotes
No, its because the parent function, 1/x represents that.
i dont understand. what do i need to do to find the intercept or realize there is none? it seems too complicated
If you examine this function, Q(x) = x^2 - x, you will see that Q(x) takes on the value zero (0) for x = 0 and for x = 1. Thus, Q(x) is not suitable for a denominator for these two values. Take them out of the Domain and you are good. That is one thing that vertical asymptotes do - remove values from the Domain.
How does my vertical asymptote of x=0 and x=2 affect my y intercept at all?
Can't there still be one?
If you have x = 0 as a Vertical Asymptote, you should notice that x = 0 IS the y-axis. Since the y-axis is NOT in the Domain, there is NO y-intercept. Any other vertical asymptote does not cause the same conclusion. Only x = 0 (the y-axis).
So if x=0 was not my v.a., i would still have an intercept for y by plugging in 0 for x? Can i do that now since x=0 is not restricted?
First, you really have to get away frotm the term "plug in". It is not well-defined and often confusing. If x = 0 is in the Domain, you most certainly may substitute x = 0 into your function and determine the corresponding y-value, which, for x = 0, will be the y-intercept. I think you have it!
ok thank you so much!! pluggin in zero is just what ive been doing for forever
Well, quit it! :-)
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