Evaluate \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} \frac{x^2sin\frac{1}{x}}{log(1+x)}\]
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} \frac{x^2sin\frac{1}{x}}{log(1+x)}\]\[=ln10\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} \frac{2xsin\frac{1}{x}+x^2cos\frac{1}{x}(-\frac{1}{x^2})}{\frac{1}{1+x}}\]\[=ln10\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} (1+x)(2xsin\frac{1}{x}-cos\frac{1}{x})\]Hmmm...
lim x--->0 x sin(1/x)=0 and lim x--->0 ln(1+x)/x =1
so answer will be zero.
lim x--->0 x sin(1/x)=0 <- How to get this?
since -1 <= sin(1/x) < = 1
so lim x--->0 x sin(1/x)= 0
does it make a sense?
Not really. -1 ≤ sinx ≤ 1 That's clear, but in this case, it's sin(1/x), where x can be 0.
x tends to 0+ so 1/x will tend to plus infinity. so argument of sin will be infinity but -1 <= sin(infinity)<=1
So my question is that is sin (infinity) valid?
yes, argument of sin can be infinity. domain of sin is whole real no.
sin(infinity) will always have a value between -1 and +1. So (sin1/x−cos1/x) will always have a value between -1 and +1. Hence where is the problem you are facing
Then it would become \[\lim_{y \rightarrow \infty} siny\]Can we really evaluate this limit?
one minute...in ur solution ...u have applied hospitals rule ...right?
Applied once. Yes.
and this rule is applicable when the form is of 0/0 or infinity/infinity.
so ur denominator is 0 but how ur numerator is zero?
x^2... Hmm.. Perhaps that's where I got wrong..
just i mean that u r doing the same whatever i did if u r applying hospitals rule.
I say x^2, so directly put 0 into it to get 0/0. Of course, I remember x sin (1/x) = 0, but I don't know/forget how to get that.
And what I've done doesn't mean that I'm correct..
x sin(1/x) is zeo if you expand sin(1/x). http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/2/9/c/29cb648e96291f52707c7225630c1a17.png
I'm sorry but I haven't learnt expanding sinx.
can you graph xsin(1/x)
see if the explanation here for lim x sin(1/x) = 0 helps http://openstudy.com/users/waterineyes#/updates/5073f6e2e4b04aa3791e8596
sin(1/x) always lies between -1 and 1 and so as x approaches zero, 0<=|x sin(1/x)| <= |x| but since x->0, |x sin(1/x)| must approach zero also.
what kropot wrote is right
Sandwich Theorem! That's something I heard from my friends after the quiz!
Only problem is that I don't quite understand -1 </sin(1/x) </1 part..
magnitude of sine function cannot go beyond 1 sin 90 = 1 (max) sin 270 = -1 (min) thats why those limits
*White flag* I don't understand what I understand.. :S Thanks everyone!
Is infinity included the domain of sine?
*included in
yes. why not....but u cannot determine the value of sin(infinity)
hey, see the graph of sine function ..... its obvious
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}=\frac{x ^{2}\sin \frac{1}{x}}{\log_{} (1+x)}=\frac{\frac{x ^{2}}{x}}{x}=1\] the reasons being: (1) as x ---> 0, sin 1/x = 1/x (2) as x ---> 0, log (1 + x) = x
u cant say lim x-->0 sin(1/x)= 1/x??
i think u r using for small x sinx=x but how u can approximate sin(1/x) with 1/x?
limit wont be 1, it'll be 0.
lim x--->0 x sin(1/x)=0 and lim x--->0 ln(1+x)/x =1 so lim x-->0 x^2 sin(1/x)/ ln(1+x) =0
@akash123 Sorry. My bad :(
hey it's fine...:) plz no sorry.
best way to calculate simple limits is by using graphs....
Hmmm... Please ignore the following.. ------------------------------------------------------------ sinx: Domain: (-∞, ∞) Range: [-1, 1] So, -1 ≤ sinx ≤ 1 for (-∞, ∞) -1 ≤ sin (1/x) ≤ 1 -x^2 ≤ x^2 sin (1/x) ≤ x^2 \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}-x^2 = 0\]\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}x^2 = 0\]By Sandwich Theorem, \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+}x^2 sin \frac{1}{x} = 0\] For cosine cosx: Domain: (-∞, ∞) Range: [-1, 1] So, -1 ≤ cosx ≤ 1 for (-∞, ∞) -1 ≤ cos (1/x) ≤ 1 How do you evaluate the limit of cos(1/x) when x-> 0+ ?
lim x-->0 cos(1/x) indeterminate
take 1/x=y then when y tends to infinity cos y tends to? you yourself know this
yeah, thats inderterminate and u don't need it here
That's the problem! \[=ln10\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} (1+x)(2xsin\frac{1}{x}-cos\frac{1}{x})\] I can't evalute the cos(1/x)
\(\huge \lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} \frac{xsin\frac{1}{x}}{log(1+x)/x}=\frac{0}{1}=0\)
distribute the limits in num, and denom
num limit through sandwich th.
How do you get that 1?
denominator lim through l'hopital or u can use it as a standard formula
through L'hopital's its 1/(1+x) when x->0+ = 1
num derivative = 1/1+x denom derivative = 1, then at x=0+, the limit =1
.............. fraction in denominator...... can we still apply L'Hopital's rule for that? (Probably your answer is yes......)
aaaand it is yes
u just need to check for 0/0 in denominator
(Cry.....) I am sooooooooo stupiddddd!!! Thanks everyone!!!
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} \frac{x^2sin\frac{1}{x}}{log(1+x)}\] \[=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} \frac{xsin\frac{1}{x}}{\frac{log(1+x)}{x}}\] \[= \frac{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}xsin\frac{1}{x}}{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}\frac{log(1+x)}{x}}\] Consider \(\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}xsin\frac{1}{x}\) \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}xsin\frac{1}{x}\] \[-1 \le sin\frac{1}{x} \le 1\] \[-x \le xsin\frac{1}{x} \le x\] \[lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+} –x = lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+} x = 0\] By Sandwich Theorem, \[lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+} xsin\frac{1}{x} = 0\] Consider \(\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}\frac{log(1+x)}{x}\) By L’Hopital’s Rule \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}\frac{log(1+x)}{x}\] \[=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}\frac{\frac{1}{1+x}}{1}\] \[=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}\frac{1}{1+x} = 1\] So, \[\frac{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}xsin\frac{1}{x}}{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}\frac{log(1+x)}{x}}\] \[=\frac{0}{1}=0\]
good work...:)
One minor question, when we do differentiation for common log, do we have to convert into natural log?
in questions relating limits, integration.... log is considered as natural log (ln) unless its mentioned as log here is common log , in which case u need to convert it into natural log ln
so the answer to your question is YES
Awww... That means to be safe, I should convert it first, right? (Since usually whenever I see log, it's common log)
you should convert only if it is mentioned that log is "common" log else consider it as ln as you did it in this question *only for problems on limits, diff., integration
Okay, thanks! So, for logx, there is no difference, but for \(\log_2x\), there is a problem, right?
yes, covert log2 x to ln x here
Nice! Thanks!!!~
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