Question

I still don't understand why the solution for this diff equation is like this
dy/(1-y)^2=1/(1-y)

is there any explanation for this solution???thank you in advance

Answer 1

\[\int\limits_{ }^{ }(\frac{ 1 }{ (1-y)^{2} })dy = \int\limits_{ }^{ }((1-y)^{-2})dy\]
Just integrate it with a negative power, so when you increase the power by 1 it will go to -1 then divide by the new power so -(1-y)^-1 which equals -1/(1-y)

Answer 2

thank you for your consideration, exactly we have the same integration result but I thin we got negative in the right side and for the task in the right side is possitive. would it be still the same meaning fo this sign?

Answer 3

im only suggesting partial fractions..

Answer 4

Using the substitution rule you should find that a -1 multiplication follows from the denominator (1-y).