(Logic Question\Probability theory) See next post.
I think this is a logic thing that I don't understand.This is taken from a book involving probability theory. ----------------------------------------------- \[0\le P(A) \le 1,A \in \mathcal{F}\]\[P( \Gamma)=1\]For a countable sum of mutually disjoint \[\{A1, A2,...\} \in \mathcal{F}:\] \[P\{\cup_jA_j \}=\sum^{}_{j}P(A_j)\]Where, gamma=sample space curly F = random events P(x) = the measure of probability that x will occur A is a random event of curly F ----------------------------------------------- What I don't understand is the first part of the last line;\[P\{\cup_j A_j\}\]I've only ever seen the union symbol for the union between two sets, but here it seems there is only one set; the set of A_j. No set precedes the union symbol, which is what confuses me.
it's the union of all the A_j's. the union symbol with the subscript is like sigma, i.e. iterate over all values of the subscript
Thanks, I had a hunch that was the case.
trust ur own guts dude
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