show that the sequence is convergent
\[\huge{a_n=\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{ 1 }{ k+n }}\]
show that \[(a_n)^{\infty}_{n=1}\] is convergent
look at each term in the sum, it's strictly bounded by 1/n. so the sum will be bounded by n*1/n = 1.
\[\frac{ 1 }{ n+1 }+\frac{ 1 }{ n+2 }+...+\frac{ 1 }{ 2n }\]
\[a_{n+1}<a_n\]
monotone decreasing
you dont need to show that... all you need to show is: \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} a_n < \infty\]
so\[a_n\] is bounded by 1/n,how I thought its 1/2n
\[\sum_{k = 1}^{n} \frac{ 1 }{ 2n } < \sum_{k = 1}^{n} \frac{ 1 }{ k+n } < \sum_{k = 1}^{n} \frac{ 1 }{ n }\]
lower bound doesnt really matter here (you can tell from a glance that a lower bound is 0). u just need the upper bound to be finite.
thanks making sense ,so is this done
well the LHS of the inequality is 1/2, and the RHS of the inequality is 1, so 1/2<a_n<1. you can do the rest
awesome thanks,when dob
when do I check the ratio or differrence
i wonder if integration would be useful, just thinking maybe: \[\lim_{n\to \infty}\int_{1}^{n}\frac{1}{n+x}dx=\lim_{n\to \infty}ln(\frac{2n}{1+n})=ln(2)\] maybe?
since the continuous function converges, and it is bigger than the discrete function; the smaller discrete function converges as well since it is consumed within the bigger function
I think the continuous function you have is actually less than the discrete function (but i'm pretty sure you can shift it so that it becomes an upper bound)
hmm \[\sum_{1}^{100}\frac{1}{k+100}=0.69\] \[\int_{1}^{100}\frac{1}{x+100}=0.68\] lol, thats odd
plot your continuous function and your discrete function and you'll see where the difference arises.
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