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Mathematics 7 Online
OpenStudy (s3a):

Is it acceptable to say that something is equal to something else "by definition" without saying what the definition is?

OpenStudy (amistre64):

depends on how much common knowledgic the definition is :)

OpenStudy (s3a):

The problem: Prove: If A is a subset of the null set ∅, then A = ∅. The solution: The null set ∅ is a subset of every set; in particular, ∅ ⊂ A. But, by hypothesis, A ⊂ ∅; hence, by Definition 1.1, A = ∅. The definition: Definition 1.1: Two sets A and B are equal if and only if A ⊂ B and B ⊂ A.

OpenStudy (s3a):

In this case, would it be acceptable to just say "by definition"?

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